Chem 11 exam practice 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	The reactivity of element X should be most similar to the reactivity of which of the following elements?
a.	elements immediately above and below element X, in the same group 	
b.	elements at the top and bottom of the group in which element X is found	
c.	elements immediately to the left and right of element X, in the same period 	
d.	elements at the beginning and end of the period in which element X is found 	
e.	elements diagonally opposite to element X on the periodic table	

____	2.	How many electrons, protons, and neutrons are in ?
a.	54 electrons; 50 protons; 70 neutrons 	
b.	50 electrons; 54 protons; 70 neutrons	
c.	46 electrons; 50 protons; 70 neutrons 	
d.	50 electrons; 50 protons; 120 neutrons 	
e.	50 electrons; 54 protons; 120 neutrons	

____	3.	A metal reacts with an ionic compound in a single displacement (substitution) reaction. What does the metal atom replace?  
a.	the anion in the compound	
b.	the cation in the compound	
c.	either the anion or the cation in the compound  	
d.	the less electronegative atom, if the compound contains a complex anion 	
e.	not enough information is given to answer	

____	4.	When the following skeleton equation is correctly balanced, what is the coefficient for sodium chloride?

C6H5Cl(l) + SiCl4(l) + Na(s) ® (C6H5)4Si(l) + NaCl(s)

a.	2 	
b.	4	
c.	6	
d.	7	
e.	8	

____	5.	When the following equation is correctly balanced, what is the sum of all the coefficients in front of the reactants and products? (Na-Pb is a sodium-lead alloy.)

Na-Pb + C2H5Cl ® Pb(C2H5)4 + Pb + NaCl

a.	12	
b.	14	
c.	15	
d.	16	
e.	18	

____	6.	Which equation represents the decomposition reaction that occurs during the electrolysis of molten aluminum oxide? 
a.	AlO(l) ® Al(l) + O2(g) 	
b.	2Al2O3(l)  ® 4Al(l) + 3O2(g) 	
c.	Al2O3(l)  ®  2Al(l) + 3O(g) 	
d.	2AlO(l)  ® 2Al(l) + O2(g) 	
e.	Al2O3(s)  ® 2Al(l) + 3/2O2(g) 	

____	7.	Consider the following double displacement reaction:

sodium hydroxide(aq) + phosphoric acid(aq) ® water(l) + sodium phosphate(aq)

What are the coefficients in the balanced equation? 
a.	1, 2, 1, 2	
b.	3, 1, 3, 1 	
c.	2, 1, 2, 1	
d.	3, 1, 1, 3 	
e.	2, 1, 1, 2	

____	8.	Predict the missing product in the following unbalanced reaction:

Pb(NO3)2 + KI ® KNO3 + ?

a.	PbI	
b.	PbI2	
c.	Pb2I	
d.	PbNO3I	
e.	Pb(NO3)2I2	

____	9.	Predict the missing product in the following unbalanced combination reaction:

Al + Cl2 ®  ?

a.	AlCl	
b.	AlCl + Cl	
c.	AlCl2	
d.	AlCl3	
e.	AlCl3 + Cl	

____	10.	How would you express 2.55 g of sodium as an amount? 
a.	0.0554 mol	
b.	0.111 mol 	
c.	2.55 mol 	
d.	9.02 mol	
e.	58.6 mol	

____	11.	How would you express 87.6 g of aluminum sulfate, Al2(SO4)3(s), as an amount? 
a.	0.256 mol 	
b.	0.315 mol	
c.	0.584 mol 	
d.	0.711 mol 	
e.	1.17 mol	

____	12.	What amount of chlorine makes up 102.5 g of chlorine gas? 
a.	0.692 mol	
b.	1.44 mol	
c.	1.67 mol	
d.	2.96 mol 	
e.	102.5 mol	

____	13.	An isotope of oxygen has 8 protons and 9 neutrons. What is the correct symbol for this isotope?
a.	O	
b.	O	
c.	O	
d.	O	
e.	O	

____	14.	How many oxygen atoms are in a 1.05 mol sample of CO2(g)?
a.	1.05 atoms	
b.	2.00 atoms	
c.	6.02 ´ 1023 atoms	
d.	1.20 ´ 1024 atoms	
e.	1.26 ´ 1024 atoms	

____	15.	Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) has the formula C6H8O6(s). How many hydrogen atoms are in one molecule of ascorbic acid?
a.	1	
b.	4	
c.	6	
d.	8	
e.	20	

____	16.	How many formula units are in 1.56 mol of potassium permanganate, KMnO4(s)?
a.	6.02 ´ 1023 formula units	
b.	9.39 ´ 1023 formula units	
c.	2.34 ´ 1024 formula units	
d.	3.75 ´ 1024 formula units	
e.	9.39 ´ 1024 formula units	

____	17.	Oxalic acid, H2C2O4(s), is isolated from clover leaves and is used in the manufacture of paints and textiles. How many oxygen atoms are in a 2.25 mol sample of oxalic acid?
a.	4 atoms	
b.	6.02 ´ 1023 atoms	
c.	1.35 ´ 1024 atoms	
d.	2.70 ´ 1024 atoms	
e.	5.42 ´ 1024 atoms	

____	18.	How many moles are in a sample of magnesium chloride, MgCl2(s), that is made up of 3.97 ´ 1025 formula units?
a.	3 mol	
b.	65.9 mol	
c.	198 mol	
d.	6.02 ´ 1023 mol	
e.	3.97 ´ 1025 mol	

____	19.	Sulfur trioxide, SO3(g), is a known contributor to the problem of acid precipitation, because it reacts with water to form sulfuric acid. What amount of sulfur trioxide is in a sample that contains 6.54 ´ 1021 molecules?
a.	0.0109 mol	
b.	0.011 mol	
c.	0.9200 mol	
d.	4 mol	
e.	6.54 ´ 1021 mol	

____	20.	Propane, C3H8(g), is a common barbecue fuel. What amount of propane is in a sample that contains 2.31 ´ 1026 carbon atoms?
a.	0.007 82 mol	
b.	127 mol	
c.	6.02 ´ 1023 mol	
d.	7.70 ´ 1025 mol	
e.	2.31 ´ 1026 mol	

____	21.	What is the mass of 2.4 ´ 1016 formula units of NaCl(s)?
a.	3.9 ´ 10–8 g	
b.	7.0 ´ 10–8 g	
c.	4.1 ´ 10–7 g	
d.	2.3 ´ 10–6 g	
e.	2.6 ´ 107 g	

____	22.	A pure sample of butane, C4H8(l), contains 3.97 ´ 1022 hydrogen atoms. How many moles of butane are there in this sample?
a.	0.00824 mol	
b.	0.0165 mol	
c.	0.0659 mol	
d.	3.97 mol	
e.	6.02 mol	

____	23.	What is the molar mass of CaCl2(s)?
a.	35.45 g/mol	
b.	40.08 g/mol	
c.	75.53 g/mol	
d.	110.98 g/mol	
e.	151.06 g/mol	

____	24.	For which compound does a 0.121 mol sample have a mass of 22.9 g/mol?
a.	BaCl2(s)	
b.	Ca(OH)2(s)	
c.	MgCl2(s)	
d.	SnCl2(s)	
e.	Sr(OH)2(s)	

____	25.	What is the molar mass of XeO2F2(s)?
a.	166.3 g/mol	
b.	182.3 g/mol	
c.	185.3 g/mol	
d.	201.3 g/mol	
e.	220.3 g/mol	

____	26.	What is the mass of 6.02 ´ 1024 formula units of NaCl?
a.	0.17 g	
b.	10 g	
c.	584 g	
d.	602 g	
e.	6.02 ´ 1024 g	

____	27.	What is the mass of 3.99 ´ 1029 ions of [Fe(C2O4)3]3–?
a.	2.07 ´ 103 g	
b.	4.61 ´ 103 g	
c.	6.63 ´ 105 g	
d.	9.54 ´ 107 g	
e.	2.12 ´ 108 g	

____	28.	How many grams are in 2.97 moles of Ca3(PO4)2?
a.	2.97 g	
b.	218 g	
c.	258 g	
d.	609 g	
e.	921 g	

____	29.	Perfluorooctanoic acid, C7F15COOH, is used to coat cookware. It is commonly known as TeflonTM. What is the molar mass of TeflonTM?
a.	47 g/mol	
b.	385 g/mol	
c.	414 g/mol	
d.	419 g/mol	
e.	602 g/mol	

____	30.	What amount of Ba(NO3)2 has a mass of 2.56 g?
a.	0.00980 mol	
b.	0.128 mol	
c.	2.56 mol	
d.	77.8 mol	
e.	102 mol	

____	31.	Swiss cheese gets its characteristic smell in part from propanoic acid, C2H5COOH(l). What amount of propanoic acid has a mass of 425 g?
a.	5.73 mol	
b.	5.74 mol	
c.	42.1 mol	
d.	425 mol	
e.	1739 mol	

____	32.	If a sample of ZnCl2(s) contains 2.56 ´ 1024 Zn2+ ions, what is the mass of the sample?
a.	289 g	
b.	313 g	
c.	348 g	
d.	579 g	
e.	600 g	

____	33.	If a sample of ZnCl2 contains 2.56 ´ 1024 chloride ions, what is the mass of the sample?
a.	289 g	
b.	313 g	
c.	348 g	
d.	579 g	
e.	600 g	

____	34.	Which compound has the greatest molar mass?
a.	NaHCO3(s)	
b.	AlCl3(s)	
c.	MgCl2(s)	
d.	RbF(s)	
e.	CH3OH(aq)	

____	35.	According to Avogadro's Law, what is the volume of 2.5 mol of NH3(g) at STP?
a.	1.0 L	
b.	2.5 L	
c.	22.4 L	
d.	56.0 L	
e.	101.0 L	

____	36.	What amount of CH4(g) occupies a volume of 38.9 L at STP?
a.	0.576 mol	
b.	1.00 mol	
c.	1.74 mol	
d.	22.4 mol	
e.	38.9 mol	

____	37.	A helium balloon contains 0.357 g of helium. How many litres does this represent at STP?
a.	0.0893 L	
b.	0.357 L	
c.	1.00 L	
d.	2.00 L	
e.	22.4 L	

____	38.	What mass of acetylene gas (C2H2(g)) occupies a volume of 10.0 L? 
a.	0.446 g	
b.	10.0 g	
c.	11.6 g	
d.	12.7 g	
e.	58.3 g	

____	39.	How many molecules are present in 48.2 L of benzene, C6H6(l), at STP?
a.	0.465 molecules	
b.	2.15 molecules	
c.	2.79 ´ 1023 molecules	
d.	1.29 ´ 1024 molecules	
e.	1.01 ´ 1026 molecules	

____	40.	Halothane, C2HBrClF3(l), a volatile liquid, was once the general anesthetic of choice for surgeons. How many fluorine atoms are present in a 23.9 L sample of halothane? 
a.	1.93 ´ 1024 atoms	
b.	1.69 ´ 1024 atoms	
c.	6.44 ´ 1023 atoms	
d.	6.02 ´ 1023 atoms	
e.	5.64 ´ 1023 atoms	

____	41.	A car air bag contains approximately 35 L of nitrogen gas when inflated. To what mass of nitrogen does this correspond?
a.	490 g	
b.	44 g	
c.	22 g	
d.	18 g	
e.	9.0 g	

____	42.	What volume at STP would a sample of CHF2 gas occupy that contains 1.35 ´ 1024 atoms of fluorine?
a.	10.0 L	
b.	12.6 L	
c.	25.1 L	
d.	50.2 L	
e.	100. L	

____	43.	At STP a container holds 1 mol of CH4(g) and 2 mol of O2(g). What is the total volume of the container?
a.	3.0 L	
b.	22.4 L	
c.	44.8 L	
d.	67.2 L	
e.	70.2 L	

____	44.	At STP, a container contains 2.00 mol of CO2, 2.56 g of CH4, and 5.67 ´ 1024 nitrogen atoms in the form of nitrogen gas. What is the total volume of the container?
a.	259 L	
b.	154 L	
c.	106 L	
d.	44.8 L	
e.	22.4 L	

____	45.	Thomas has prepared an unknown gas with a mass of 6.76 g. Upon further analysis, he finds that the compound occupies a volume of 0.950 L at STP. What is the molar mass of the unknown compound?
a.	0.286 g/mol	
b.	3.49 g/mol	
c.	7.11 g/mol	
d.	71.1 g/mol	
e.	160. g/mol	

____	46.	What is the mass percent of water in the following hydrate: BaCl2·H2O(s)?
a.	7.96%	
b.	14.8%	
c.	17.3%	
d.	33.3%	
e.	66.6%	

____	47.	What is the mass percent of phosphorus in ammonium phosphate? 	
a.	10.2% 	
b.	20.8% 	
c.	28.2% 	
d.	36.4% 	
e.	63.2%	

____	48.	What is the mass percent of barium in barium oxide, BaO2(s)?
a.	18.9%	
b.	37.8%	
c.	81.1%	
d.	89.5%	
e.	100%	

____	49.	What is the mass percent of bromine in CH3Br(g)?
a.	3.19%	
b.	12.7%	
c.	15.9%	
d.	42.1%	
e.	84.2%	

____	50.	Which compound has the greatest mass percent of carbon?
a.	dichloroethane, C2H4Cl2	
b.	methane, CH4	
c.	phenol, C6H6O	
d.	styrene, C8H8	
e.	Vitamin C, C6H8O6	

____	51.	Which of the following compounds has the greatest mass percent of nitrogen?
a.	C3Cl3N3O3(s)	
b.	CCl2N2O(s)	
c.	C2Cl4N2O2(s)	
d.	HNO3(aq)	
e.	H2C2Cl2N2O2(s)	

____	52.	What is the mass percent of copper in copper(II) nitrate, Cu(NO3)2(s)?
a.	14.9%	
b.	18.8%	
c.	33.9%	
d.	50.8%	
e.	51.3%	

____	53.	What is the mass percent of sodium in sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7(s)?
a.	17.6%	
b.	25.3%	
c.	39.7%	
d.	42.7%	
e.	82.4%	

____	54.	What is the mass percent of oxygen in 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene (TNT), C7H5N3O6(s)?
a.	2.22%	
b.	18.5%	
c.	37.0%	
d.	42.3%	
e.	57.7%	

____	55.	A tiny sample of a certain compound contains 52 atoms of iron, 78 atoms of sulfur, and 312 atoms of oxygen. What is the empirical formula of the compound? 
a.	Fe2S3O12(s)	
b.	Fe2S3O4(s)	
c.	FeSO4(s)	
d.	Fe2SO4(s)	
e.	Fe2(SO4)2(s)	

____	56.	A compound is found to contain 88.8% copper and 11.2% oxygen. What is its empirical formula? 
a.	CuO(s)	
b.	Cu2O(s)	
c.	Cu3O2(s)	
d.	CuO2(s)	
e.	Cu2O2(s)	

____	57.	What is the empirical formula of a compound that contains 20.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen, 46.6% nitrogen, and oxygen?
a.	CH3NO(s)	
b.	CH3NO2(s)	
c.	CH4N2O(s)	
d.	CH4N(s)	
e.	CH2N2O2(s)	

____	58.	Match heads are coated with a compound that contains 56.3% phosphorus and 43.7% sulfur. When the empirical formula is found, what is the formula mass of the empirical formula?
a.	93.9 u	
b.	158 u	
c.	189 u	
d.	220 u	
e.	251 u	

____	59.	The simplest ratio of atoms in a compound is given by
a.	the empirical formula	
b.	the empirical mass	
c.	the formula mass 	
d.	the molecular formula	
e.	the molecular mass	

____	60.	A substance is composed of 3.05% carbon, 0.26% hydrogen, and 96.69% iodine. What is the empirical formula of this substance? 
a.	CHI3	
b.	CH2I2	
c.	C2HI7	
d.	CH2I5	
e.	C3H2I11	

____	61.	A certain hydrate of thallium chloride is 53.4% thallium and 27.8% chlorine by mass. The rest is water. What is the empirical formula of this compound?
a.	TiCl3·H2O	
b.	TiCl3·2H2O	
c.	TiCl4·3H2O	
d.	TiCl3·4H2O	
e.	More information is required to answer the question.	

____	62.	A compound contains 63.6% tungsten by mass. The rest is chlorine. What is the empirical formula of this compound?
a.	W2Cl3	
b.	WCl7	
c.	WCl5	
d.	WCl3	
e.	WCl	

____	63.	A certain compound contains 72.0% iron and 28.0% oxygen. What is the empirical formula of this compound?
a.	Fe3O2	
b.	Fe2O3	
c.	Fe3O4	
d.	FeO2	
e.	FeO	

____	64.	An unknown compound is found to have the following composition: 37.5% C, 12.5% H, and 50.0% O. What is the empirical formula of this compound? 
a.	CH3O4	
b.	CH4O	
c.	C3HO4	
d.	C3H2O4	
e.	C4H10O5	

____	65.	A 4.00-g sample of a compound was found to contain 1.96 g of tin, 0.46 g of nitrogen, and 1.58 g of oxygen. What is the empirical formula of this compound?
a.	SnNO	
b.	SnN2O	
c.	SnNO3	
d.	Sn(NO3)3	
e.	Sn(NO3)2	

____	66.	A 5.00-g sample of a compound is found to contain 3.52 g of indium. The rest is sulfur. What is the empirical formula of this compound?
a.	In2S3	
b.	In2S2	
c.	In2S	
d.	InS2	
e.	InS3	

____	67.	The relative number of atoms of each element in a compound is shown in
a.	the molecular formula	
b.	the mass of the sample	
c.	the empirical formula	
d.	both A and C	
e.	None of the above are correct.	

____	68.	Symclosene is a disinfectant that is used in household cleaners. It has an empirical formula of CClNO and a molecular mass of 232.42 u. What is the molecular formula of symclosene? 
a.	CCl2N2O	
b.	C2Cl2N2O2	
c.	C3Cl3N3O3	
d.	C4Cl4N4O4	
e.	C5Cl5N5O5	

____	69.	Diethyl oxalate is a solvent that is used in some perfumes. Its empirical formula is C3H5O2, and its molecular mass is 146.14 u. What is the molecular formula of diethyl oxalate? 
a.	C3H5O2	
b.	C6H5O4	
c.	C6H10O4	
d.	C9H15O6	
e.	C12H20O8	

____	70.	The empirical formula of an certain hydrocortisone compound is found to be C13H19O3(s). Upon analysis, the molar mass of the compound is found to be 446.6 g/mol. How many hydrogen atoms are in each molecule of hydrocortisone?
a.	48	
b.	38	
c.	28	
d.	19	
e.	17	

____	71.	The molar mass of an unknown compound was determined to be 72.1 g/mol. Which of the following could be the molecular formula of the unknown?
a.	CH4	
b.	C2H6	
c.	C3H8	
d.	C4H10	
e.	C5H12	

____	72.	Lereece analyzed a compound and found that it contained 74% carbon, 8.7% hydrogen, and 17.3% nitrogen. She also determined that its molar mass was 162 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of the compound?
a.	C20H28N4	
b.	C10H14N2	
c.	C5H7N	
d.	C2H2N	
e.	CH2N	

____	73.	A 4.37-g sample of a compound containing both bromine and fluorine is found to contain 2.00 g of bromine. If the molecular formula is found to be BrF5, what is the value of n in the following equation?

n = 

a.	1	
b.	2	
c.	3	
d.	4	
e.	none of the above	

____	74.	Which of the following occupations involves determining the identity of unknown compounds?
a.	quality control chemist	
b.	analytical chemist	
c.	archaeological chemist	
d.	forensic scientist	
e.	all of the above	

____	75.	A compound is found to be 86% carbon and 14% hydrogen. If the molar mass is 70.1 g/mol, what is the value of n in the following equation?

n = 

a.	1	
b.	2	
c.	3	
d.	4	
e.	5	

____	76.	A compound contains 85% Ag and 15% F by mass. If the molar mass is 127 g/mol, what is the value of n in the following equation?
n = 
a.	1	
b.	2	
c.	3	
d.	4	
e.	5	

____	77.	What is the empirical formula of a compound that contains 46.2% carbon, 5.2% hydrogen, and fluorine?
a.	C3H4F2	
b.	C5H10F	
c.	C6H8F4	
d.	C6H6F2	
e.	C6H3F5	

____	78.	A certain plant contains a compound that can be extracted and used in medicine. The empirical formula of this compound is CH2OS. It has a molar mass between 185.0 g/mol and 190.0 g/mol. What is its molecular formula?
a.	C2H6O2S2	
b.	C3H6O3S3	
c.	C3H4O3S3	
d.	C2H4O2S2	
e.	CH2OS	

____	79.	Karen was asked to determine the molecular mass of an unknown gaseous product of a reaction. She collected the gas using a pneumonic trough containing water, and analyzed the sample using a carbon-hydrogen combustion analyzer. Which of the following pieces of data does Karen not need to use in her calculations?
a.	barometric pressure	
b.	mass of the unknown gas	
c.	time for the reaction to reach completion	
d.	temperature of the lab	
e.	volume of the unknown gas	

____	80.	A 2.00-g sample compound contains 1.25 g of bromine. The rest is oxygen. What is the empirical formula of this compound?
a.	BrO	
b.	BrO2	
c.	Br2O	
d.	BrO3	
e.	Br3O	

____	81.	A certain compound was found to contain 13.9% nitrogen, 47.4% oxygen and the rest potassium. What is the empirical formula of this compound?
a.	KNO2	
b.	KNO3	
c.	K2NO2	
d.	K2NO3	
e.	K2N2O3	

____	82.	A compound containing only carbon and hydrogen was analyzed in a carbon-hydrogen combustion analyzer. The combustion resulted in 2.93 g of carbon dioxide and 1.78 g of water. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
a.	C20H60	
b.	C5H10	
c.	C7H20	
d.	CH3	
e.	C2H6	

____	83.	A compound containing only carbon and hydrogen was analyzed in a carbon-hydrogen combustion analyzer. The combustion resulted in 3.30 g of carbon dioxide and 0.88 g of water. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
a.	C3H4	
b.	C4H3	
c.	C6H8	
d.	C3H7	
e.	C8H6	

____	84.	A 44.0-g sample of the hydrate CuSO4·xH2O is found to contain 15.9 g of H2O. What is the value of x?
a.	3	
b.	4	
c.	5	
d.	6	
e.	7	

____	85.	In order to determine the formula of a hydrate in an experiment, what information would you not need to include in your calculations?
a.	oven temperature	
b.	mass of substance and container after drying	
c.	mass of the hydrate and the container	
d.	molar mass of the anhydride	
e.	All of the above must be included.	

____	86.	A hydrate of magnesium sulfate, commonly known as Epsom salts, can be mixed with hot water for a soothing bath. In a 5.00-g sample of this hydrate, 2.44 g was found to be MgSO4(s). If the formula of the hydrate is MgSO4·xH2O(s), what is the value of x?
a.	3	
b.	5	
c.	7	
d.	9	
e.	11	

____	87.	Alum is a hydrated form of potassium aluminum sulfate. In a 25.00-g sample of this hydrate, 13.7 g was found to be KAl(SO4)2(s). If the formula of the hydrate is KAl(SO4)2·xH2O(s), what is the value
of x?
a.	1	
b.	3	
c.	6	
d.	9	
e.	12	

____	88.	Gypsum is mined in Windsor, NS. It has many uses, one of which is to make plaster of Paris. In a 500-kg sample of gypsum, CaSO4·xH2O(s), 395 kg was found to be CaSO4(s). What is the value of x?
a.	1	
b.	2	
c.	3	
d.	4	
e.	5	

____	89.	What is the molecular formula of a compound that has an empirical formula of NO2 and a molar mass of 91 g/mol (± 2 g/mol)?
a.	NO	
b.	N2O	
c.	NO2	
d.	N2O4	
e.	N3O6	

____	90.	What is the molecular formula of a compound that has an empirical formula of C3H4 and a molar mass of 80 g/mol (± 2 g/mol)?
a.	CH4	
b.	C3H4	
c.	C6H8	
d.	C7H12	
e.	C9H12	

____	91.	Consider the following balanced chemical equation:

Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) ® Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)
		
If 1.20 g of calcium metal is placed in water, what amount of calcium hydroxide is produced?
a.	0.0299 mol 	
b.	0.142 mol	
c.	0.176 mol 	
d.	1 mol 	
e.	2.22 mol  	

____	92.	In an experiment, the total mass of all the reactants is 4.20 g. Three products are formed. The total mass of two of the products is 3.65 g. What is the mass of the third product? 
a.	7.85 g 	
b.	4.20 g 	
c.	3.65 g	
d.	0.55 g 	
e.	There is not enough information to answer the question.	

____	93.	Methane, CH4(g), reacts with an excess of oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water:

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ® CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
		
What amount of carbon dioxide forms when 10.0 g of methane burns in an oxygen environment?
a.	0.5 mol 	
b.	1 mol	
c.	10.0 mol	
d.	20.0 mol 	
e.	140.1 mol 	

____	94.	In a decomposition reaction, 216.59 g of a compound breaks down into two elements. 16.00 g of one element is formed. One mole of the second element is formed. Identify the second element.
a.	oxygen 	
b.	gold	
c.	mercury	
d.	iron	
e.	silver 	

____	95.	What mass of carbon dioxide forms when 1.00 g of pure carbon burns in oxygen? 
a.	8.61 g	
b.	5.22 g	
c.	4.19 g 	
d.	3.67 g 	
e.	1.00 g	

____	96.	What amount of iron(III) oxide forms when 1.05 mol of iron react with 0.850 mol of oxygen? 
a.	1.05 mol	
b.	0.850 mol	
c.	0.525 mol	
d.	0.262 mol	
e.	0.0200 mol	

____	97.	If 1.24 g of pure copper roofing material oxidizes, determine the mass of copper(II) oxide that forms.
a.	0.776 g	
b.	1.56 g	
c.	2.20 g  	
d.	3.10 g	
e.	6.16 g	

____	98.	One mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L at STP. What volume of carbon dioxide forms if 160 g of oxygen reacts with excess carbon monoxide at STP? 
a.	56 L 	
b.	112 L 	
c.	224 L 	
d.	448 L	
e.	672 L	

____	99.	The percentage yield of a particular industrial reaction needs to be 82% if the reaction is to be profitable. If the theoretical yield is 950 kg, what does the actual yield need to be? 
a.	1158 kg	
b.	1000 kg	
c.	950 kg	
d.	779 kg 	
e.	171 kg 	

____	100.	The amount of product that is predicted by stoichiometry is known as the
a.	theoretical yield	
b.	actual yield	
c.	percentage purity	
d.	percentage yield 	
e.	actual purity	

____	101.	According to the balanced chemical equation below, what amount of nitrogen dioxide would be produced from the reaction of 3.5 mol of oxygen gas with sufficient ammonia?

2NH3(g) + O2(g) ® 2NO2(g) + 3H2O(g)

a.	1.0 mol	
b.	2.0 mol	
c.	3.5 mol	
d.	4.0 mol	
e.	5.25 mol	

____	102.	When 0.25 mol of methane, CH4(g), burns in oxygen, what amount of water is produced?
a.	0.25 mol	
b.	0.50 mol	
c.	0.75 mol	
d.	1.0 mol	
e.	2.0 mol	

____	103.	Which law is represented by the labeled equation below?

N2(g) +	3H2(g) ®	2NH3(g)	
28.0 g	6.1 g	34.1 g	

a.	law of conservation of mass	
b.	law of conservation of mass and energy	
c.	law of constant composition	
d.	Boyle’s law	
e.	law of multiple proportions	

____	104.	Stoichiometry involving mass measurements and calculations is often referred to as
a.	gas stoichiometry	
b.	gravimetric stoichiometry	
c.	mass stoichiometry	
d.	molar stoichiometry	
e.	solution stoichiometry	

____	105.	What mass of H2(g) is required to react completely with 3.2 g of N2(g)?

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ® 2NH3(g)

a.	9.6 g	
b.	3.2 g	
c.	1.06 g	
d.	0.69 g	
e.	0.23 g	

____	106.	What mass of propane, C3H8(g), would react completely with 53.0 g of oxygen, according to the following equation?

C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) ® 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)

a.	10.6 g	
b.	11.2 g	
c.	12.1 g	
d.	13.6 g	
e.	14.6 g	

____	107.	What amount of carbon dioxide is produced if 0.56 mol of water is also produced in this complete combustion reaction?

C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) ® 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)

a.	0.42 mol	
b.	0.56 mol	
c.	0.75 mol	
d.	3 mol	
e.	4 mol	

____	108.	Sara enjoys carrying out the reaction in which lead(II) nitrate reacts completely with potassium iodide to produce lead(II) iodide and potassium nitrate. She likes the brilliant yellow colour of the lead(II) iodide produced. The unbalanced equation is shown below.

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + KI(aq) ® PbI2(s) + KNO3(aq)

What is the maximum mass of lead(II) iodide that Sara can make if she starts with 5.00 g of potassium iodide and an excess of lead nitrate?
a.	5.00 g	
b.	6.9 g	
c.	9.4 g	
d.	13.9 g	
e.	14.2 g	

____	109.	If you light a piece of magnesium ribbon that is stuck in a mound of ammonium dichromate, and you turn down the lights, the reaction looks like a volcanic eruption. What is really happening? In addition to the combustion reaction of magnesium with oxygen, the ammonium dichromate is decomposing into chromium(III) oxide, nitrogen gas, and water vapour. The unbalanced equation is given below.

(NH4)2Cr2O7(s) ® Cr2O3(s) + NO(g) + H2O(g)

If your teacher demonstrates this reaction in the fume hood and starts with 7.5 g of ammonium dichromate, how many molecules of water vapour would be produced?
a.	7.17 ´ 1022 molecules	
b.	1.79 ´ 1022 molecules	
c.	1.93 ´ 1022 molecules	
d.	6.02 ´ 1023 molecules	
e.	4.52 ´ 1024 molecules	

____	110.	If 1.5 mol of lithium nitride reacts with 2.0 mol of water according to the following equation, what amount of lithium hydroxide would be produced?

Li3N(s) + 3H2O(l) ® NH3(g) + 3LiOH(aq)

a.	1.0 mol	
b.	2.0 mol	
c.	4.5 mol	
d.	6.5 mol	
e.	9.0 mol	

____	111.	If 15.8 mol of hydrogen gas react with 1.0 mol of oxygen gas, what amount of water would be produced?

2H2(g) + O2(g) ® 2H2O(l) 

a.	1.0 mol	
b.	2.0 mol	
c.	3.6 mol	
d.	8.0 mol	
e.	16 mol	

____	112.	If 0.22 mol of hydrogen sulfide reacts with 0.20 mol of sulfur dioxide according to the following equation, which of the following is true?

2H2S(g) + SO2(g) ® 3S(s) + 2H2O(l)

a.	SO2 is the limiting reactant.	
b.	0.0216 mol of S are formed.	
c.	0.33 mol of S are formed.	
d.	A and B are true.	
e.	A and C are true.	

____	113.	If 15.0 g of lithium reacts with 15.0 g of fluorine, how many moles of lithium fluoride will be produced?

2Li(s) + F2(g)  ® 2LiF(s) 

a.	0.395 mol	
b.	0.789 mol	
c.	1.37 mol	
d.	2.00 mol	
e.	2.16 mol	

____	114.	If 5.00 mol of iron(III) oxide react with 4.00 mol of carbon monoxide, what amount of iron forms?

Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g)  ® 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)

a.	2.00 mol	
b.	2.67 mol	
c.	3.00 mol	
d.	4.00 mol	
e.	10.0 mol	

____	115.	When 19.2 g of methane react with 113.4 g of chlorine according to the reaction below, what mass of carbon tetrachloride is formed?

CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g)  ® 4HCl(g) + CCl4(g)

a.	229 g	
b.	221 g	
c.	114 g	
d.	61.5 g	
e.	17.1 g	

____	116.	When 10.0 g of ethane react with 20.0 g of oxygen according to the reaction below, what mass of water is formed?

2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g)  ® 6H2O(g) + 4CO2(g)

a.	20.0 g	
b.	18.0 g	
c.	14.6 g	
d.	10.0 g	
e.	9.6 g	

____	117.	When 0.125 g of magnesium and 0.750 g of oxygen combine, what mass of magnesium oxide is formed?

2Mg(s) + O2(g)  ® 2MgO(s)

a.	0.210 g	
b.	0.250 g	
c.	0.472 g	
d.	0.375 g	
e.	0.750 g	

____	118.	Silver nitrate and barium chloride react in solution to form a silver chloride precipitate. If 0.300 mol of silver nitrate react with 0.500 mol of barium chloride, what mass of silver chloride will be formed, assuming 100% yield?

2AgNO3(aq)  + BaCl2(aq) ® 2AgCl(s) + Ba(NO3)2(aq)

a.	21.5 g	
b.	35.8 g	
c.	43.0 g	
d.	71.7 g	
e.	114.6 g	

____	119.	What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed from the complete combustion reaction between 0.530 mol of methane and 0.495 mol of oxygen?
a.	5.9 g	
b.	7.9 g	
c.	9.9g	
d.	10.9 g	
e.	21.9 g	

____	120.	Equal amounts of sulfur and fluorine react, producing sulfur hexafluoride. If 5.00 g of sulfur are put in the reaction chamber and an equal mass of fluorine is added, what mass of product will form?

S(s) + 3F2(g) ® SF6(s)

a.	5.00 g	
b.	6.43 g	
c.	10.00 g	
d.	19.3 g	
e.	22.8 g	

____	121.	In a reaction between aluminum and sulfur, where 6.0 g of each are available to react, what mass of aluminum sulfide is formed? The unbalanced equation is shown below.

Al(s) + S(s) ® Al2S3(s)

a.	33.0 g	
b.	28.1 g	
c.	14.0 g	
d.	12.0 g	
e.	9.37 g	

____	122.	Brian reacts 2.82 g (±0.01 g) of vanadium(II) oxide with 3.12 g (±0.01 g) of iron(III) oxide. He wants to find out the percentage yield of the reaction. First he has to calculate the theoretical yield, however. What theoretical yield should he use?

2VO(s) + 3Fe2O3(s) ® 6FeO(s) + V2O5(s)

a.	1.18 g	
b.	3.82 g	
c.	7.66 g	
d.	11.82 g	
e.	35.47 g	

____	123.	If 1.75 g of aluminum is placed in a solution containing 2.23 g of sulfuric acid, what is the maximum amount of aluminum sulfate that can be expected to form? Use the following unbalanced equation to help you.

Al(s) + H2SO4(aq) ® H2(g) + Al2(SO4)3(aq)

a.	11.1 g	
b.	11.1 g	
c.	7.78 g	
d.	3.98 g	
e.	2.58 g	

____	124.	In the reaction between phosphorus, oxygen, and water, 15.0 g of P4 and 15.0 g of H2O are allowed to react with excess O2. If 0.459 mol of H3PO4 is produced, what is the percentage yield?

P4(s) + 5O2(g)+ 6H2O(l)® 4H3PO4(aq)

a.	100%	
b.	94.7%	
c.	66.7%	
d.	63.2%	
e.	45%	

____	125.	If the yield of phosphorous pentachloride is 55.8 g when 23.2 g of phosphorous reacts in the following unbalanced equation, what is the percentage yield?

P(s) + Cl2(g) ® PCl5(s)

a.	14.3%	
b.	35.8%	
c.	41.6%	
d.	55.8%	
e.	100%	

____	126.	In a reaction between phosphorus trichloride and chlorine gas to produce phosphorus pentachloride, 56.0 g of phosphorus trichloride react with excess chlorine gas. The actual yield of the product is 66.0 g. What is the percentage yield of the product? 
a.	55.8%	
b.	66.0%	
c.	77.7%	
d.	84.5%	
e.	100.0%	

____	127.	If 12.8 g of ammonia and 16.0 g of oxygen are available for the following reaction, and 10.0 g of nitrogen monoxide are formed, what is the percentage yield of nitrogen monoxide?

4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ® 4NO + 6H2O(g)

a.	83.5%	
b.	78.1%	
c.	62.5%	
d.	45.4%	
e.	10.0%	

____	128.	Many reactions occur in more than one step. The following balanced equations show a two-step reaction.

(1) ZrC(s) + 4Cl2(g) ® ZrCl4(g) + CCl4(g)
(2) ZrCl4(g) + 2Mg(s) ® Zr(s) + 2MgCl2(l)

If 350 g of chlorine react completely in this two-step process, what mass of Zr(s) will be produced?
a.	113 g	
b.	175 g	
c.	350 g	
d.	450 g	
e.	912 g	

____	129.	Many reactions occur in more than one step. The following balanced equations show a two-step reaction.

(1) 4Bi(s) + 3O2(g) ® 2Bi2O3(g)
(2) Bi2O3(g) + 6HCl(aq) ® 3H2O(l) + 2BiCl3(aq)

If 73.0 g of bismuth react in this two-step process, and 75.0 g of bismuth(III) chloride are formed, what is the percentage yield of that product?
a.	66.5%	
b.	68.7%	
c.	78.0%	
d.	97.3%	
e.	100.0%	

____	130.	In a blast furnace, iron metal can be extracted from iron(III) oxide according to the following two-step process.

2C(s) + O2(g) ® 2CO(g)
Fe2O3(s) + 2CO(g) ® 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)

If 2.00 kg of oxygen react in this two-step process, and 5.00 kg of iron are produced, what is the percentage yield based on the mass of oxygen consumed?
a.	40.0%	
b.	57.3%	
c.	69.8%	
d.	71.6%	
e.	100%	

____	131.	If 3.00 g of xenon hexafluoride react to produce 1.20 g of xenon trioxide according to the following equation, what is the percentage yield of xenon trioxide?

XeF6(s) + 3H2O(l) ® XeO3(s) + 6HF(g) 

a.	18.3%	
b.	40.0%	
c.	54.7%	
d.	59.8%	
e.	81.7%	

____	132.	In a synthesis of acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin™), C9H8O4(s), 10.0 g of acetic anhydride, C4H6O3(l), and 15.0 g of salicylic acid, C7H6O3(s), are available to react. If 10.0 g of Aspirin™ are produced, what is the percentage yield?

C4H6O3(l) + 2C7H6O3(s) ® 2C9H8O4(s) + H2O(l) 

a.	13.0%	
b.	51.1%	
c.	58.0%	
d.	66.7%	
e.	77.0%	

____	133.	If equal amounts of carbon disulfide and sodium hydroxide react according to the equation below, what is the formula for the limiting reactant?

3COCl2(s) + 4NaOH(aq) ® 2NaCl(aq) + Na2CO3(aq) + 2H2O(l) 

a.	COCl2	
b.	H2O	
c.	Na2CO3	
d.	NaCl	
e.	NaOH	

____	134.	What amount of magnesium nitride forms when 0.300 mol of magnesium react completely with nitrogen?
a.	0.100 mol	
b.	0.200 mol	
c.	0.300 mol	
d.	0.600 mol	
e.	0.900 mol	

____	135.	What is the final concentration of CaClwhen 400 mL of 0.20 mol/L CaCl is mixed
with 600 mL of water?
a.	0.10 mol/L	
b.	0.080 mol/L	
c.	0.012 mol/L	
d.	0.010 mo/L	
e.	0.80 mol/L	

____	136.	What is the final concentration of a nitric acid solution when equal volumes of
0.5 mol/L HNO are mixed?
a.	1.0 mol/L	
b.	0.50 mol/L	
c.	2.0 mol/L	
d.	0.25 mol/L 	
e.	cannot be determined unless volume is known	

____	137.	What is the final concentration of HSO when 25 mL of 2.0 mol/L HSOis mixed with 75 mL of 0.50 mol/L HSO?
a.	2.50 mol/L	
b.	0.00875 mol/L	
c.	0.875 mol/L	
d.	0.0875 mol/L	
e.	0.0375 mol/L	

____	138.	50.0 mL of 1.00 mol/L HCl is mixed with 150.0 mL of 2.00 mol/L HCl. What is the molar concentration of the final solution? 
a.	1.25 mol/L	
b.	0.350 mol/L	
c.	3.00 mol/L	
d.	2.33 mol/L	
e.	1.75 mol/L	

____	139.	What volume of 4.0 mol/L HCl can be prepared using 100 mL of 12 mol/L HCl?
a.	3000 mL 	
b.	480 mL	
c.	300 mL	
d.	400 mL	
e.	1200 mL	

____	140.	What is the final concentration of a solution if 5.00 mL of 12.3 mol/L HCl is diluted to a final volume of 100 mL?
a.	0.246 mol/L	
b.	0.615 mol/L	
c.	2.46 mol/L	
d.	6.15 mol/L	
e.	0.123 mol/L	

____	141.	What is the final concentration of NaNO in a solution made by diluting 500 mL of 0.25 mol/L NaNO to a final volume of 1.20 L?  
a.	0.104 mol/L	
b.	0.0600 mol/L	
c.	0.600 mol/L	
d.	0.125 mol/L	
e.	0.300 mol/L	

____	142.	What volume of 15 mol/L HSO must be diluted to prepare 150 mL of 6.0 mol/L HSO?
a.	30 mL	
b.	90 mL	
c.	15 mL	
d.	60 mL	
e.	120 mL	

____	143.	What mass of calcium hydroxide is needed to prepare 1.0 L of 0.020 mol/L Ca(OH)? 
a.	2.3 g	
b.	1.5 g	
c.	1.1 g	
d.	14.8 g	
e.	2.0 g	

____	144.	What mass of sodium carbonate will remain if 100 mL of 0.100 mol/L NaCO is evaporated 
to dryness?
a.	10.0 g	
b.	5.30 g	
c.	1.06 g	
d.	0.300 g	
e.	0.160 g	

____	145.	Apply the general solubility guidelines and determine which compound is insoluble in water.
a.	potassium acetate	
b.	ammonium chloride	
c.	iron(III) phosphate	
d.	barium hydroxide	
e.	silver nitrate	

____	146.	What is the net ionic equation for the reaction between AgNO(aq) and KS(aq)?
a.	Ag(aq) + NO(aq) ® AgNO(s)	
b.	Ag(aq) + S(aq) ® AgS(s)	
c.	2K(aq) + S(aq) ® KS(s)	
d.	K(aq) + NO(aq) ® KNO(s)	
e.	2Ag(aq) + S(aq) ® AgS(s)	

____	147.	What is the net ionic equation for the reaction between NaCl(aq) and Pb(NO)(aq)?
a.	Pb(aq) + 2Cl(aq) ® PbCl(s)	
b.	Na(aq) + Cl(aq) ® NaCl(s)	
c.	Na(aq) + 2Cl(aq) ® NaCl(s)	
d.	Pb(aq) + 2NO(aq) ® Pb(NO)(s) 	
e.	Na(aq) + NO(aq) ® NaNO(s)	

ch
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	1.1
STA:	321-7

	2.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	1.2
STA:	321-7

	3.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	1.3
STA:	323-10

	4.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	1.3
STA:	323-10

	5.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	1.3
STA:	323-10

	6.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	1.3
STA:	323-10

	7.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	1.3
STA:	323-10

	8.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	1.3
STA:	323-10

	9.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	1.3
STA:	323-10

	10.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	11.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	12.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	13.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.1
STA:	323-1

	14.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	15.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	16.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	17.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	18.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	19.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	20.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	21.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	22.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.2
STA:	323-1

	23.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	24.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	25.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	26.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	27.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	28.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	29.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1 | 117-2		

	30.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	31.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1 | 117-2		

	32.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	33.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	34.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.3
STA:	323-1

	35.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1

	36.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1

	37.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1

	38.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1

	39.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1

	40.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1

	41.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1 | 117-2		

	42.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1

	43.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1

	44.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	2.4
STA:	323-1

	45.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	2.3 | 2.4
STA:	323-1 | 212-3		

	46.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.1
STA:	323-1

	47.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	3.1
STA:	323-1

	48.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.1
STA:	323-1

	49.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.1
STA:	323-1

	50.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	3.1
STA:	323-1

	51.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.1
STA:	323-1

	52.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.1
STA:	323-1

	53.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.1
STA:	323-1

	54.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.1
STA:	323-1

	55.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	56.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	57.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	58.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	59.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	60.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	61.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1 | 212-3		

	62.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	63.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	64.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	65.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	66.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	67.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1

	68.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1

	69.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1

	70.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1

	71.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1

	72.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1 | 212-3		

	73.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1

	74.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.3
STA:	117-2

	75.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1

	76.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1

	77.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1

	78.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1 | 117-2		

	79.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2 | 3.31
STA:	212-3 | 213-3		

	80.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	81.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.2
STA:	323-1

	82.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	3.4
STA:	323-1

	83.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	3.4
STA:	323-1

	84.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.4
STA:	323-1

	85.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	3.4
STA:	212-3

	86.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.4
STA:	323-1

	87.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.4
STA:	323-1

	88.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	3.4
STA:	323-1

	89.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1 | 214-10		

	90.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	3.3
STA:	323-1 | 214-10		

	91.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11

	92.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11

	93.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11

	94.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11

	95.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-10

	96.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	97.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11

	98.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11

	99.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	100.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	101.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-10

	102.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-10

	103.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-10

	104.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	easy	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-10

	105.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11

	106.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11

	107.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-10

	108.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11 | 213-3		

	109.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.1
STA:	323-11 | 213-3		

	110.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	111.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	112.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	113.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	114.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	115.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	116.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	117.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	118.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	119.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	120.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	121.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	122.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11 | 212-3 | 214-10

	123.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11 | 212-3 | 214-10

	124.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	125.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	126.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	127.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	128.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	129.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	130.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	131.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	132.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.3
STA:	323-11

	133.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	4.2
STA:	323-11

	134.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	4.1
STA:	322-1

	135.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	7.4
STA:	323-6

	136.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	7.4
STA:	323-6

	137.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	7.4
STA:	323-6

	138.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	challenging	REF:	7.4
STA:	323-6

	139.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	7.4
STA:	323-6

	140.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	7.4
STA:	323-6

	141.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	7.4
STA:	323-6

	142.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	7.4
STA:	323-6

	143.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	7.3
STA:	323-6

	144.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	7.3
STA:	323-6

	145.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	8.1
STA:	323-8

	146.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	8.1 | 8.2
STA:	323-8

	147.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	intermediate	REF:	8.1 | 8.2
STA:	323-8